Discoveries merely about concepts

Okay. Here are some thoughts on a talk Frank Jackson gave last week on Williamson on thought experiments.

The question is what Gettier discovered in his famous article. According to Frank, he revealed a fact about our concept 'knowledge': that it is not the same as our concept of justified true belief. According to Williamson, Gettier has revealed a fact about knowledge itself: that it is not justified true belief. A discovery merely about our concepts, Williamson says, "would show little of philosophical interest"; it would be "of significance primarily to theorists of concepts, not to epistemologists". For "the primary concern of epistemology is with the nature of knowledge, not with the nature of our concept of knowledge". (All of these are from p.206 of The Philosophy of Philosophy.) Frank disagrees. He thinks that results about the key concepts of a discipline are quite important to that discipline.

Setting aside the silly question of what is of philosophical interest -- who is right about Gettier's discovery? Has he revealed a fact about knowledge or about 'knowledge' (or both)?

I suppose finding out that knowledge is not justified true belief is to find out that one thing, X, is not identical to another thing, Y. Here the two things are properties -- classes of possible individuals perhaps, or certain functions, or universals, or structures of universals. Whatever they are, they can be presented in different ways. (Otherwise the conjecture that knowledge is JTB would never have made much sense.) X can be presented as 'knowledge', but perhaps also as 'the most general factive mental state', or as 'undefeated justified true belief'. If properties are classes, X can also be presented as 'Y \ Z', where Z is JTB without knowledge. When Gettier discovered that knowledge is not JTB, maybe in some sense he discovered that Y \ Z is not Y. But the way this fact was presented to him (and by him) was crucial to his (and our) epistemic progress.

The same holds for almost every discovery. Discovering that Scott is the author of Waverley is more interesting than discovering that Scott is Scott; discovering that George Elliot is Mary Ann Evans is more interesting than discovering that George Elliot is George Elliot. Even if substituting co-refering names makes no semantic difference, it should be uncontroversial that it can make an epistemic difference: that "George Elliot is Mary Ann Evans" can answer a question or settle a dispute that "George Elliot is George Elliot" cannot. A statement's cognitive significance is not a function of what its constituents refer to.

In the other direction, different propositions often have the very same cognitive significance. "Scott is the author of Waverley", "'Scott' denotes the author of Waverley", and "{ Scott } is the set of authors of Waverley" arguably express different propositions. They are even about different things. (Only the last one is about a set.) Nevertheless, in many circumstances, they will answer the same questions and settle the same disputes. If King George understood elementary set theory and wondered who wrote Waverley, he wouldn't have dismissed the information that { Scott } is the set of authors of Waverley as irrelevant. He wouldn't have judged it to be "of significance primarily to theorists of sets". The information answered his question, albeit in a somewhat roundabout way.

So what was Gettier's discovery? As long as we take it for granted that our concept 'knowledge' picks out knowledge, there is, epistemically, no difference between discovering that knowledge isn't justified true belief and discovering that our concept 'knowledge' is not that of justified true belief. It's not that Gettier made both of these discoveries. The discoveries are one and the same.

Comments

# on 02 September 2008, 15:47

That the two discoveries epistemically amount to the same thing seems to depend, however, on the concept of knowledge being a broadly descriptive or definitional concept. For, consider the same kind of argument with a concept that many take to be a non-descriptive, directly referential concept:

"As long as we take it for granted that our concept 'water' picks out water, there is, epistemically, no difference between discovering that water isn't XYZ and discovering that our concept 'water' is not the concept 'XYZ'. The discoveries are one and the same."

The problem here is that I cannot infer from the fact that my concept 'water' is a different concept from my concept 'XYZ' that there is a real difference between water and XYZ. So, it is not in general true that the two kinds of discoveries amount to the same thing - at least not without substantial assumptions about the concepts involved (beyond mere disquotational truths).

# on 05 September 2008, 10:08

Right, the epistemic equivalence holds only for semantically stable concepts. But if 'X' is not semantically stable, it is rather implausible that we can make non-trivial discoveries about the nature of X from the armchair at all. To the extent that philosophers can make discoveries about natures, I would like to maintain that these discoveries coincide with discoveries about concepts.

# on 05 September 2008, 12:02

Re-reading my post, I think my conclusion obscures the main point I should have wanted to make: that discoveries hardly ever concern objects directly, irrespective of how they are presented. The mode of presentation is almost always essential to our epistemic progress: that the woman over there is having an affair with that lady is less interesting than that my wife is heaving an affair with my sister. If concepts are, or encode, modes of presentation, then discoveries are almost always at least in part about concepts.

# on 06 September 2008, 04:29

In your last sentence in the last comment, I don't think the consequent follows. What follows is something like the claim that discoveries aren't individuated just by their objects, but by the modes of presentation. So is concepts go with modes of presentation, discoveries involve (are individuated partly in terms of) concepts. But it doesn't follow that discoveries are *about* concepts. One can also see this by noting that on a strong Russellian view where discoveries are individuated by their objects and where concepts encode objects, it likewise doesn't follow that discoveries are about concepts.

As for the original post, I'm suspicious of claims such as "as long as we take P for granted, there is epistemically no difference between Q and R". If P is cognitively significant (say, "water is H2O"), then there's an epistemic difference between Q and R all the same. And it's plausibly cognitively significant that 'knowledge' refers to knowledge (indeed, that it refers to anything at all). So I think there's a relevant difference between discoveries about the referent of 'knowledge' and discoveries about knowledge.

Of course, against a background where we take for granted that 'knowledge' refers to knowledge, the two discoveries will always go together. I think that the interesting question is, which is prior. Does one discover that knowledge isn't JTB in virtue of discovering that 'knowledge' doesn't refer to JTB, or does one discover that 'knowledge' doesn't refer to JTB in virtue of discovering that knowledge isn't JTB. Of course for typical scientific discoveries, things work the second way. For some linguistic discoveries, think work the first way. I take it that one thing that Frank might be saying is that in the case of Gettier, things work the first way rather than the second way.

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